It is charged by both Muslims and Jehovah Witness’s alike that Christ never claimed, “I am God”. Jesus was “in [the] beginning …with God” (John 1:1) and Jesus said the scriptures “bear witness about” him (John 5:39). Didn't Jesus claim "I am God" in the scriptures? He did! Let us see Gen 31.
Gen. 31:11-13 Then the angel of the [true] God said to me in the dream, ‘Jacob!’ to which I said, ‘Here I am.’ 12 And he continued, ‘Raise your eyes, please, and see all the he-goats springing upon the flock are striped, speckled and spotty, for I have seen all that La´ban is doing to you. 13 I am the [true] God of Beth´el, where you anointed a pillar and where you vowed a vow to me. Now get up, go out of this land and return to the land of your birth.’”
Note: The Hebrew word for "angel" is mal'ak which means Messenger. Notice in the above verse, it was the “Messenger” of the true God who claims, “I am the [true] God". This Messenger is sent by God in Ex 23:20 - “Here I am sending an angel ahead of you”. Therefore this Messenger is a separate person from God. This Messenger can forgive sins. Forgiving sins is an attribute of God -Mark2:7. And further, God says “my name is within him”(Ex. 23:21). If God's name is Jehovah, this messenger must be Jehovah too.
It was the messenger “of the [true] God who was going ahead of the camp of Israel in a pillar of cloud” (Ex. 14:19, 24). But Ex. 13:21 says it was none other than "Jehovah [who] was going ahead of them in the daytime in a pillar of cloud to lead them". This messenger is also identifed as Jehovah himself. See -An Angel called Jehovah. Who is this messenger? Is He Christ?
1 Corinthians 1-4 Now I do not want YOU to be ignorant, brothers, that our forefathers were all under the cloud and all passed through the sea 2 and all got baptized into Moses by means of the cloud and of the sea; 3 and all ate the same spiritual food 4 and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they used to drink from the spiritual rock-mass that followed them, and that rock-mass meant the Christ. See also: ANGEL of Jehovah not Jehovah?, Jesus is the Almighty God, How bibilical is Godhead?
1 Cor. 8:6 There is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.
A closer look at the text will reveal that Jesus never said he was not good. He challenged the man to think “WHY He called Jesus good”. Jesus was helping the rich ruler recognize that the attribute of “goodness” which the ruler had applied to Him was a quality that only God possesses. Thus, Jesus was forcing the ruler to recognize that either He is “good” and is therefore God, or He is bad and is therefore only a man.
If you notice, the text also says, the head of a woman is man. Now does this mean that the husband is a superior being to his wife? No at all! The husband is greater than his wife by way of position but not by nature. The same applies to the Father and the Son.
Just like in 1 cor 11:3, the term greater refers to position, not nature. The term better refers to nature. If Jesus wanted to say He was inferior to God in nature, He would have said, "The Father is better than I." Speaking of Jesus, it reads in Hebrews 1:4 “So he has become better than the angels”.
At John 14:12, Christians are said to do “greater” works than Jesus. Does this mean that our works are “better” than Jesus’ works? An “elder” is in a “greater” position than a “ministerial servant,” does this mean that the “elder” has a “better” human nature?
We can see how “as touching his Manhood”, Jesus is “inferior to the Father” as the Father was in a “greater” position (being in Heaven) than Jesus was here on earth. But this does not prove that Jesus was an “inferior” God simply because the Father is in a “greater” position of authority while Jesus was here on earth.
7) If Jesus is "subject" to the Father, He can't be God 1 Cor. 15:28?
1 Cor 15: 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
The same principle of 'headship' between a husband and a wife applies when it says “the son himself will also be subject to” the Father in 1 Cor 15:27,28.
In luke 2:51 Jesus was subject to his parents:
Luke 2: 51 And he went down with them and came to Naz´a·reth, and he continued subject to them. Also, his mother carefully kept all these sayings in her heart.
No one would say that Jesus was inferior BY NATURE to Joseph and Mary. Likewise, Jesus is NOT inferior BY NATURE to the Father.
8) Jesus can't be God, because He said that the Father was His God in Jn. 20:17?
Matt 3:17 "Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”
The Son claims “I am the true God” in Gen. 31:13 and God claims the Son has his "name" Jehovah Ex. 23:21. Also, why was Jesus always so careful to distinguish His relationship with the Father from the relationship that His followers have with the Father? Why did He say, “I go to My Father and your Father” instead of saying, “I go to our Father”? Jesus is God’s Son by nature, whereas we are God’s sons by adoption (John 1:12).
Matt. 20:23 is not addressing the issue of who is saved, but rather a position of honor in the heavenly kingdom. That Jesus defers to the will of the Father does not detract from or negate the deity of the Son. Jesus himself grants the thief on the cross, salvation.
Luke 23:42 And he went on to say: “Jesus, remember me when you get into your kingdom.” 43 And he said to him: “Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise.”
The Watchtower says in the Feb. 15, 1995 Watchtower on pages 5 & 6 "...in many cases, he has chosen not to use his foreknowledge. Because God is almighty, he is free to exercise his abilities as he wishes, not according to the wishes of imperfect humans." Watchtower is saying that the Father is God even though they teach that he can choose to not know or use certain things. Yet at the same time they try to prove that Jesus is not God because he chose to limit his knowledge when he was a man.
In this verse, Paul is saying that his only desire is to make known or tell of, Jesus.
Jesus is not saying that He’s ignorant of the hour of His second coming, but rather, He simply will not reveal it - neither will the angels.
With this understanding, Jesus is not saying He is ignorant of the hour of the second coming, but rather, He cannot reveal it, neither can angels, because according to the wedding protocol, it is reserved for the Father only to announce that the preparations of his son are complete, and the time for the wedding has come. Jesus alludes to these wedding customs in John 14:2.
11) Jesus said, "The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative" (John 5:19)
This is a very interesting text and it actually proves the deity of Christ. The first part of the text says that the Son cannot do a single thing. This is because “as a man he humbled himself” (Philippians 2:9) and depended upon God. The second part of the verse says Christ can do whatever the thing that the Father does. Now who can do the same things that God the Father can do? Could a man or an angel? Not at all!
I am going to Mary, Martha and Lazarus’ home to study the Bible.” That would lead you to think that there were three people who lived there. Later I mention that I went to Lazarus’ home and ate supper with Lazarus and Mary. Does that mean that Martha do not exist? This is just a brief report of what happened. Spirit has been already identified as a person who “pleads with God” just like the person Jesus Christ.
There are three persons's in the bible and the three are God in nature. They are one in UNITY. With regard to triadic pasages, there are in fact 8 "triadic passages" that establish a clear pattern of meaning for PJJ (Peter, James and John). The PJJ triadic passages, do not prove PJJ are God, they only prove there is a reason behind why they are always grouped in sets of three. Triadic passages are powerful, because they prove, by way of pattern, that the three persons have a special and unique working arrangement. The triadic passages prove that each member is also a person. ( See also Triadic Passages in bible.ca)
John 5:26, "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself"
In STRONG'S Concordance we see the word "HAVE or granted" (#2192) can be translated as, "to hold" "keep" or even "possess." If any of these definitions are used, STRONG'S stresses the point further by stating it is, "used of those joined to any one by the bonds of natural blood or marriage or friendship or duty or law etc, of attendance or companionship " This leads me to ask the question... Are not the Father and Son in agreement and joined as "natural blood" or a as a "friendship, duty, law, or companionship?" In other words, would it not be better understood to say the Father is in agreement that Jesus will use the life already within Himself as a Creator God to bring His children from the grave on that great and dreadful day? If we read just a verse preceding the passage we see this to be the context...
John 5:25-26, "Most truly I say to YOU, The hour is coming, and it is now, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who have given heed will live. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself ;"
The Word clearly says the dead in Christ will come to a day where they will actually hear the voice of the Creator, (Jesus) and what happens when they hear this wonderful voice? The Word says they "will live" does it not? And then it goes on to say that they live because the Father is already in agreement with His Son that by the sound of His voice they shall live. What else can they do but respond to such a voice that created them on day one anyway. This is why this wonderful Saviour called Lazarus BY NAME on that day. Had Jesus just said "come forth" ALL the graves would have ripped open because He is the source of all life on earth!
Another way to translate the passage using the Greek would be to say, "For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to be the source of life in himself." This is more plausible to embrace because the context of the preceding and following verses makes better sense when stated in this way.